July
@july
At point is it legitimate for a certain government (state, city, municipal etc) to say a commodity or service (water, utilities etc) should be a right for all of its citizens? And provide the public utility as a monopoly? Will emerging network states / city states do the same?
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Diego
@d1ego
IMO only for market failures (i.e. when the negative externality of a good not being a social good is not priced in by the private markets)
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