If the government can break up corporate monopolies when they hurt consumers, the government should be able to break up union monopolies when they hurt consumers.

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But then what are they going to do for votes? 😐

From Llama 3.1: This is an example of a fallacy called “false analogy” or “analogical fallacy.” The statement attempts to draw a parallel between two distinct situations, corporate monopolies and labor unions, without acknowledging the differences in their nature, purpose, and context. This makes the analogy between the two situations incomplete and misleading.

Everything sounds so reasonable but difficult to achieve. Why is this?

If one considers the potential harm to consumers, do you think there should be a specific criteria or like a couple thresholds for when the government should intervene in both corporate and union monopolies?