The U.S. has worse wealth distribution than pre-revolutionary France did:

(Source: The Intellectualist)

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I wonder if pre-revolutionary France also had cultural justifications for the inequality. 

What is the 18th century French equivalent of meritocracy?

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mfer #9187

The explanation was mainly religion and blood stuff before the revolution. Now capitalism and the idea of meritocracy is creating the same level of inequalities, with « justifications » (racisms and patriarchy)